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"BY THEIR FRUITS" ONLY FOR FALSE PROPHETS? Some empty believists have gotten in the nasty habit of saying that Jesus' "by their fruits" standard of Matthew 7:20 applies only to false prophets. This is because they want you to believe that their fake converts are real, even though they never get baptized, never attend church and never manifest the new life in Christ required by II Corinthians 5:17. It is said that you can't use Jesus' Matthew 7:20 standard on them or their converts because Jesus' standard applies only to false prophets. Nice try, kiddo, but some of us can read. Although the immediate context concerns false prophets, the usage of the words "EVERY tree" and "EVERY ONE" clearly shows that this is a general rule to be applied to anyone who makes a profession of being a follower of Christ: "Beware of false prophets, which come to you in sheep's clothing, but inwardly they are ravening wolves. Ye shall know them by their fruits. Do men gather grapes of thorns, or figs of thistles? Even so EVERY good tree bringeth forth good fruit; but a corrupt tree bringeth forth evil fruit. A good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit, neither can a corrupt tree bring forth good fruit. EVERY tree that bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire. Wherefore by their fruits ye shall know them. Not EVERY ONE that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven. Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity." (Mat. 7:15-23) It applies only to false prophets, does it? Then why did Jesus say EVERY tree and EVERY ONE? Furthermore, why did Paul say that the Thessalonian believers had turned to God FROM IDOLS in I Thessalonians 1:9? Why mention that, if fruit was only relevant for prophets and false prophets? Why did Paul tell both Jews and Gentiles "that they should repent and turn to God, and do works meet for repentance," if that applies only to false prophets? (Acts 26:20) And why does the writer of Hebrews dedicate a whole chapter (Heb. 11) to showing that true faith produces action on the part of those who have it, whether they be prophets, shepherds, wives of patriarchs, harlots, mothers, judges or kings? II Corinthians 5:17 says that if ANY many be in Christ, he is a new creature. Does "any man" really just mean false prophets? LOL. Jesus' "by their fruits" standard is a Biblical standard from Genesis thru Revelation, and it's a standard in all of life and nature. To suggest that it applies only to false prophets is lunacy, and it shows the desperation and shallowness of those who subscribe to the hellish doctrines of empty believism. Besides, if you are preaching empty believism, then you ARE a false prophet! As for every one else, the Bible is very clear. No sinner produces fruit TO BE saved (Eph. 2:8-9), but some fruit will eventually be manifest if a man IS saved (Eph. 2:10; II Cor. 5:17). You'd do well to steer clear of anyone who disagrees.